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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Open the box - Tap each box in turn to open them up and reveal the item inside.

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1) Which of the following is a virus? a) Escherichia coli (E. coli) b) Histoplasmosis c) Pinworms d) Varicella 2) Which of the following can be further classified as protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasite? a) Parasites b) Bacteria c) Viruses d) Fungi 3) Which of the following is a direct mode of transmission? a) Contact with an infected person b) Contact with a contaminated examination table c) Contact with a tick d) Contact with a pen 4) A health care worker is not feeling well and has a fever. In which of the following scenarios can the health care worker resume caring for patients? a) After being fever-free for 48 hr with the help of fever-reducing medications b) After being fever-free for 24 hr with the help of fever-reducing medications c) After being fever-free for 48 hr without the help of fever-reducing medications d) After being fever-free for 24 hr without the help of fever-reducing medications 5) According to the CDC, which of the following is the first step a medical assistant should take after exposure to blood? a) Report it to their supervisor. b) Receive a medical evaluation. c) Receive health counseling. d) Wash the area with soap and water. 6) A medical assistant is performing aseptic handwashing. How long should the assistant rub their hands vigorously with soap? a) 5 to 10 seconds b) 10 to 15 seconds c) 15 to 20 seconds d) 2 to 3 min 7) How often are health care facilities required to train their staff on guidelines for exposure to bloodborne pathogens? a) Biannually b) Annually c) Every 2 years d) The health care facility can determine when they want to train their staff 8) What is the minimum temperature that must be reached to ensure the sterility of autoclaved items? a) 93.3° C (200° F) b) 107.2° C (225° F) c) 135° C (275° F) d) 121.1° C (250° F) 9) According to CDC guidelines, when can sterilized packages be used? a) If the package is intact and has no tears but does show a watermark b) If the package has a small tear patched with tape c) If the package was stored near a sink on an open shelf d) If the package has been stored in a cool, dry area and does not show watermarks 10) When using chemical sterilization, how long do instruments need to be submerged to be considered sterilized? a) 6 hr b) 10 hr c) 8 hr d) 24 hr 11) How long should unwrapped items be sterilized in an autoclave? a) 10 min b) 15 min c) 20 min d) 40 min 12) Which of the following is the goal of surgical asepsis? a) To reduce the number of micro-organisms b) To eliminate pathogenic micro-organisms c) To try to reduce the risk of contamination d) To prohibit the growth of micro-organisms 13) In which of the following scenarios should a medical assistant use medical aseptic techniques? a) Washing hands prior to and after each patient encounter b) Assisting in the removal of a cyst c) Assisting with placing sutures on a cut leg d) Cleaning a deep wound on the forearm 14) Which of the following items should a medical assistant dispose of in a biohazard waste bag? a) Gauze that fell on the ground b) A used needle c) Gauze contaminated with blood d) A used mask 15) Gloves should be worn during which of the following medical office tasks? a) Cleaning the front office table b) Performing a blood pressure reading for a patient c) Handling anything contaminated with blood d) Handling unused suture scissors 16) How often should the exposure control plan be updated if there are no changes? a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Annually d) Every 5 years 17) In a health care setting, which of the following is the minimum amount of alcohol content that can be used in an alcoholbased sanitizer? a) 40% b) 55% c) 60% d) 90% 18) OSHA regulations require employers to make which of the following vaccines available at no cost to health care workers? a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B c) Varicella d) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) 19) Which of the following is a common symptom of contracting an infectious disease? a) Numbness and tingling b) Headache c) Blurry vision d) Difficulty breathing 20) Which of the following precautions should a medical assistant consider when a person is coughing or sneezing? a) Droplet precautions b) Airborne precautions c) Contact precautions d) Transmission-based precautions

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1) Which of the following is a virus? 2) Which of the following can be further classified as protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasite?

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Open the box - Tap each box in turn to open them up and reveal the item inside.

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Gameshow quiz - A multiple choice quiz with time pressure, lifelines and a bonus round.

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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PCMH & ACO focus on the patient and the healthcare team to provide the best outcome for the patient., Examples are PT, OT, ST, pharmacists, mental health specialists nutritionists, and dentists., Examples are MD, DO, NP, or PA., Examples are medical assistants and administrative staff members.

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Practice Questions for The Clinical Laboratory

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Labelled diagram - Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Open the box - Tap each box in turn to open them up and reveal the item inside.

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1) A medical assistant is speaking with a patient who is being treated for kidney disease. One of the possible treatments is a kidney transplant, and the patient is refusing that option. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Remind the patient they could die without a kidney transplant. b) Respect the patient's wishes and answer any questions or concerns. c) Inform the patient that they will help them get approval from the insurance company, so the procedure is covered. d) Ask the patient to have their family members contact the health care organization. 2) A medical assistant is speaking with an older adult patient regarding how to increase their appetite. Which of the following considerations should the assistant make when speaking with the patient? a) Speak in a loud voice. b) Provide the patient with large print documents. c) Speak clearly and maintain proper eye contact. d) Use complex medical terms that clearly define the diagnosis. 3) A medical assistant is speaking with a medical provider about correspondence that will be written for a patient. Which of the following factors applies to the communication process between the assistant and provider? a) Complex medical terms may be used. b) Lay terms will be used. c) Passive communication style is used. d) Aggressive communication style is used. 4) A medical assistant should recognize that which of the following characteristics describe a kinesthetic communicator? a) They tend to communicate using visual aids. b) They tend to communicate using auditory resources. c) They are one-sided communicators with ulterior motives d) They tend to communicate by using their hands. 5) Which of the following is a true statement regarding patients who utilize virtual visits? a) Nonverbal cues are eliminated. b) Body language is not a factor. c) Personal space is essential. d) They rely more on the words being said. 6) A medical assistant is assisting with preparing a patient for their appointment by asking questions. Which of the following is a closed-ended question? a) "Who is your employer?" b) "What is your past medical history?" c) "What are your health concerns today?" d) "What questions or concerns do you have?" 7) Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take when communicating with patients on the phone? a) Use a monotone voice. b) Enunciate words. c) Speak loudly so they can hear. d) Use appropriate body language. 8) Which of the following should a medical assistant recognize as the purpose of using a template? a) Templates alleviate the need to proofread. b) Templates guide the writer in using the proper format. c) Templates replace the need for etiquette. d) Templates are more informal than other letters. 9) A medical assistant is having a discussion with a patient who arrived late for their appointment and is upset that they are being requested to reschedule it. Which of the following actions should the assistant take to try to de-escalate the situation? a) Allow the patient to vent the reason for the tardiness. b) Inform the patient that they can go to a different provider who is available now. c) Remind the patient that they were late and that the provider has other patients to see. d) Ask the patient to sit and wait to see if they can be fit into the schedule. 10) A medical assistant is speaking with a patient who is unhappy with the medical services they received. The patient feels that their needs were not met and demands that the medical provider see them again. The schedule is full and it is not possible to fit the patient in today. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Inform the patient they will have to schedule a new appointment on a different day b) Give the patient a list of local providers they can choose to see. c) Tell the patient that their insurance will not likely cover a new appointment, so they will have to pay out-of-pocket costs. d) Inform a supervisor of the situation and ask them to assist. 11) The daughter of an adult patient has called to discuss the treatment plan for their parent. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take? a) Inform the patient's daughter that the medical provider will contact them with the information. b) Answer the questions being asked. c) Confirm the patient's daughter is listed on the signed release of information form. d) Send the patient's daughter a copy of the patient's treatment plan via email. 12) Which of the following actions positively contributes to teamwork and engagement of the team members? a) Performing individual responsibilities and overall tasks b) Working through drama that is brought into the work environment c) Encouraging dating and personal relationships d) Creating a gossip board to share feelings 13) Which of the following characteristics demonstrates a professional attitude as a medical assistant? a) Healthy eating b) Good work ethic c) Physical fitness d) Accurate personal budgeting 14) A medical assistant is speaking with a patient who came in for management of diabetes. The assistant is giving the patient information about a diabetic diet. Which of the following is the goal of the therapeutic communication in this situation? a) To manipulate the conversation b) To demand changes c) To control the conversation d) To encourage and support 15) A medical assistant is assisting to prepare for an upcoming virtual visit for chronic pain management. Which of the following is an important proactive measure to perform in preparation of the visit? a) Send the patient an after visit summary. b) Check that audio and visual components are working properly. c) Complete an encounter form prior to the visit. d) Schedule a follow-up visit. 16) Which of the following is a component of active listening skills? a) Paraphrasing what is being said b) Asking the patient to wait to ask questions until the information has been presented c) Responding to emails during the conversation d) Correcting the patient mid-sentence 17) Which of the following vocal traits should be used when speaking with patients over the telephone? a) Speak sternly using a lower tone. b) Speak warmly using a louder tone. c) Speak using a warm and natural tone d) Speak slowly using monotone. 18) Which of the following actions assists with increasing patient satisfaction? a) Ask the medical provider to determine patient satisfaction levels b) Include a satisfaction survey in the new patient packets to be completed before the appointment c) Have the patient complete patient satisfaction surveys after their appointment. d) Include the patient satisfaction survey during the resolution process for conflict management. 19) A medical assistant is working to de-escalate a conversation with a patient who is upset about receiving a statement of their account with a balance due. The patient then begins to calm down and asks questions that indicate a better understanding. Which of the following actions should the assistant take following the conversation? a) Schedule an appointment to go over the patient's financial responsibility. b) Ask the patient to contact their insurance company to verify the amounts. c) Document the conversation in the patient medical record. d) Perform a courtesy write-off for the amount due. 20) Which of the following is included in risk management for a healthcare organization? a) Decreasing the number of staff b) Reducing spending in the budget c) Controlling inventory levels d) Ensuring a safe environment

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1) A medical assistant is speaking with a patient who is being treated for kidney disease. One of the possible treatments is a kidney transplant, and the patient is refusing that option. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

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1) Which of the following types of patient visits is more resource intensive? a) Sports physical b) Established patient c) Follow-up d) New patient 2) Which of the following has an impact on determining the duration of an appointment? a) Third-party payer requirements b) Provider preferences c) Patient availability d) Reimbursement methods 3) Which of the following questions should be asked during the screening process to determine the type of appointment needed? a) What is the reason for the visit? b) Who is your employer? c) What medications are you currently taking? d) What is your previous address? 4) Which of the following applications should be used to create an encounter form? a) Excel b) Word c) Inventory software d) Practice management software 5) A medical assistant is checking out a patient following their appointment. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take? a) Request to see the patient's photo identification. b) Ask the patient what medications they are currently taking. c) Review the after-visit summary with the patient. d) Evaluate the patient's past, family, and social history. 6) Which of the following codes are determined by reviewing the reason for a patient's visit? a) Procedure codes (CPT) b) ICD-10-PCS c) HCPCS codes d) Diagnosis codes (ICD-10-CM) 7) Which of the following services can require case management and preauthorization from a third-party payer? a) Elective and costly medical services b) Preventive medical services c) Annual wellness exam d) Follow-up care for a burn 8) Using coding guidelines, which of the following should be supported with code selections when preparing a billing request? a) Predetermination findings b) Verification of insurance coverage c) Explanation of benefits d) Medical necessity 9) Which of the following describes the purpose of interoperability? a) Reimbursement methodologies b) Supports the importance of documentation c) Audits and reviews d) Credentialling 10) Which of the following is a function of performing charge reconciliations? a) Verifying patient eligibility b) Continuity of care c) Posting the amounts in the patient's account d) Obtaining preauthorization 11) Which of the following services does a clearinghouse provide? a) Billing patients for their financial responsibility b) Claims adjudication for the third-party payer c) Processing payroll for the health care organization d) Safety inspections and evaluating procedures 12) Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take for a claim that was denied for lack of medical necessity? a) Bill the patient. b) Resubmit the claim. c) Submit an appeal. d) Write off the amount. 13) A patient has a fee-for-service Medicare plan. Which of the following forms should be used for the patient when a service might not be considered medically necessary? a) Patient's Bill of Rights b) Notice of Privacy Practices c) Advance directives d) Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage 14) Which of the following is a benefit of a medical assistant calling to remind a patient of an upcoming visit? a) Increased reimbursement b) Decreased claim denials c) Decreased no-show rates d) Less patient financial responsibility 15) Which of the following is a benefit of using drop-down menus when entering patient information into the medical records? a) Less information needed b) Greater accuracy c) More specificity d) More consistency 16) Which of the following is a purpose of an equipment inspection log? a) To keep track of depreciation value b) To monitor who uses the equipment c) To document a timeline of scheduled maintenance d) To determine sales on equipment 17) Which of the following does the health care facility provide a patient with to log into their patient portal? a) A username and access code b) An email address c) A fee schedule d) A referral 18) Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take if a patient is having trouble logging into a telehealth visit? a) Ask the patient to contact tech support at their local computer store. b) Assist the patient with logging in and verify their settings are correct. c) Ask them to reschedule when a family member is there to assist. d) Request an interpreter to assist. 19) Which of the following reports is used to show health care service charge amounts that are outstanding to the organization? a) A/R aging report b) A/P aging report c) Remittance advice d) Bank deposit statement 20) In which of the following categories does a medical assistant record a cash payment of $20 that a patient pays towards their appointment at the time of services? a) Copayment b) Coinsurance c) Deductible d) Write-off

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A multiple choice quiz with time pressure, lifelines and a bonus round.. 1) Which of the following types of patient visits is more resource intensive?

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1) Which of the following screenings would be recommended for a 65-year-old male who has a history of smoking? a) Colonoscopy b) Prediabetic testing c) Hepatitis C d) Abdominal aortic aneurysm 2) Which of the following is the purpose of evaluating the patient after an educational session? a) To determine if the material was correct b) To determine if the patient has a learning deficit c) To determine if the patient understood the information or skill d) To demonstrate correct evaluation techniques to the provider 3) Which of the following is the advised timeframe for patients aged 40 years and older to have mammogram screenings? a) Every 3 years b) Biannually c) Annually d) Every 5 years 4) Which of the following is the best resource to refer to a caretaker of an adult patient who can no longer care for themselves? a) Local hospitals b) Assisted living facilities c) Adult Day programs d) Long-term care facilities 5) Which of the following is the best way to assist a patient with finding resources for their specific needs? a) Schedule a visit with a social worker. b) Refer the patient to internet searches. c) Provide the patient with a screening questionnaire to return to the office. d) Maintain a list of local community resources. 6) Which of the following is the best method to instruct a patient on remembering to take their medication each day? a) Warn the patient they may not get better if they can't remember to take their medication. b) Ask the patient to write their medication schedule on their calendar. c) Send a daily text to remind the patient to take their medications. d) Utilize medication boxes that are arranged for the week. 7) Which of the following is the main goal of a patient-centered medical home (PCMH)? a) Increase the needs of health care services b) Positively contribute to the revenue cycle c) Improve patient outcomes and reduce costs d) Decrease travel and time for the patient 8) Which of the following is the main reason for patient deficiencies during a transition of care? a) Insufficient financial resources b) Lack of communication c) Lack of family support d) Insufficient staffing 9) Listening to a medical assistant explain ways to decrease dietary intake of sodium is considered which of the following learning styles? a) Kinesthetic learning b) Auditory learning c) Visual learning d) Tactile learning 10) Which of the following preventative measures can a medical assistant use to educate a patient regarding communicable diseases? a) Covering a cough b) Sneezing into the air c) Washing hands only if soiled d) Avoid touching hand sanitizer bottles 11) Which of the following is a social determinant that can prevent a patient from meeting their needs? a) Adequate transportation b) Smoking c) Sickle cell anemia d) Weather or climate change 12) Which of the following can be a barrier when providing patient education? a) Visual impairment b) Color deficiency c) College-level education d) Self-employment 13) Regarding prescription medications, which of the following steps must be completed prior to a patient leaving the medical office? a) Verifying insurance coverage b) Verifying the patient's pharmacy hours c) Inquire about the patient's employment status d) Provide medication education 14) Which of the following might be a result of ineffective communication between medical providers during transition of care? a) Decreased medical costs b) Rehospitalization c) Greater availability of medical resources d) Optimal health care services 15) The physician has spoken with the patient regarding the health benefits of quitting smoking. The patient agrees to seek help. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take? a) Ask the provider for a written referral. b) Share with the patient that a previous patient had success with a smoking-cessation gum. c) Provide the patient with several names and numbers to contact for smoking cessation support. d) Ask the patient to contact their insurance provider for a referral for smoking cessation. 16) When reviewing a 48-year-old female's medical record prior to their annual wellness exam, the medical assistant sees they have not completed any preventive care screenings. Which of the following should be discussed with the patient during their appointment? a) Mammogram b) Prostate exam c) Chest x-ray d) Electrocardiogram 17) Which of the following forms of telehealth is a substitute for in-person visits? a) Store and forward telemedicine b) Live video c) Remote patient monitoring (RPM) d) Mobile health (mHealth) 18) Which of the following is a cultural factor that can affect a patient's compliance with treatment? a) Beliefs related to food and diet b) Beliefs related to education c) Beliefs related to traditions d) Beliefs related to values 19) Which of the following immunizations should be given regularly during a lifetime? a) Influenza vaccine b) Hepatitis B vaccine c) Hepatitis A vaccine d) Varicella vaccine 20) Which of the following timelines is suggested for individuals to screen for colorectal cancer? a) Starting at age 40 years old b) Starting at age 45 years old c) Starting at age 40 only with family history d) Starting at age 45 only with family history

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NHA: Patient Care Coordination and Education

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1) Which of the following screenings would be recommended for a 65-year-old male who has a history of smoking?

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1) Which of the following positions is best for performing an EKG? a) Prone b) Supine c) Fowler's d) Left lateral 2) Which of the following actions should be taken for a patient experiencing a somatic tremor artifact on their electrocardiogram due to uncontrolled muscle movements? a) Tie the patient's arms to the exam table while conducting the test. b) Ask for assistance to hold the patient's arms still while conducting the procedure. c) Clean the skin and securely tape down the electrodes on the extremities d) Have the patient lay their hands palms down under their buttocks to reduce the muscle movements 3) Which of the following places should the electrode for lead V2 be placed? a) The right leg b) The left arm c) The left side of the sternum, fourth intercostal space d) The left side of the chest, fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line 4) Which of the following places should the black limb lead be placed? a) The right leg b) The right arm c) The left leg d) The left arm 5) Which of the following actions can cause a wandering baseline artifact? a) A disconnected or broken lead wire b) A patient with lotion or cream on their skin c) The patient shaking due to anxiety d) Poor grounding of the machine 6) Which of the following artifacts is a result of patient movement with breathing? a) 60-cycle interference b) Interrupted baseline c) Wandering baseline d) Somatic tremor 7) A medical assistant notices frequent, regular spikes on the EKG tracing. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Reattach the faulty electrode. b) Have the patient hold their breath for 10 seconds c) Turn off nearby electrical equipment. d) Offer the patient a warm blanket. 8) Which of the following demonstrates how somatic tremors can differentiate from 60-cycle interference? a) Somatic tremors produce an interrupted baseline. b) Somatic tremors produce irregular spikes. c) 60-cycle interference produces a wandering baseline d) 60-cycle interference produces an irregular QRS rhythm. 9) Which of the following statements made by a medical assistant demonstrates an understanding of patient privacy? a) "Please remove all clothing from the waist up and you can get dressed after the EKG is done." b) "I'll cover your abdomen with a blanket as soon as I'm done placing the EKG electrodes." c) "I can turn the heat up if you're cold as you'll need to remain unclothed for the duration of the EKG test." d) "You can leave all your clothes on and I'll try to work around them to obtain the EKG." 10) Which of the following is the correct number of electrodes needed to record a 12-lead EKG? a) 12 b) 10 c) 5 d) 6 11) Which of the following serves as a conductor of impulses during an EKG? a) Electrocardiograph b) Lead wires c) Electrolyte gel d) EKG paper 12) While preparing to record an EKG, you notice there's a break in the baseline and the screen displays flat lines across all leads. Which of the following do you suspect? a) The patient is in asystole b) An electrical interference has occurred c) There is a disconnected lead wire. d) The patient is in ventricular fibrillation. 13) Which of the following is the duration of a standard calibration box? a) 4 seconds b) 2 second c) 0.04 seconds d) 0.2 seconds 14) Which of the following is the height of a standard calibration box? a) 20 mm b) 0.5 mm c) 15 mm d) 10 mm 15) A medical assistant is preparing to record an EKG on a patient who has a history of pulmonary disease. The patient reports shortness of breath after lying on the exam table. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take? a) Elevate the head of the bed to 45° (semi-Fowler's position). b) Tell the patient to hold their breath. c) Administer oxygen to the patient. d) Record the EKG with the patient standing. 16) While assisting with a cardiac stress test, the medical assistant observes the patient's blood pressure reading is 204/108. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Stop the procedure and notify the provider immediately b) Finish performing the stress test and notify the provider. c) Decrease the treadmill speed and check the electrodes. d) Administer aspirin to the patient and stop the test. 17) Which of the following differentiates sinus tachycardia from ventricular tachycardia? a) Sinus tachycardia has narrow QRS complexes. b) Ventricular tachycardia has narrow QRS complexes. c) Sinus tachycardia doesn't have P waves. d) Ventricular tachycardia has P waves. 18) Which of the following dysrhythmias results in continuous fibrillatory waves between the QRS complexes? a) Atrial fibrillation b) Ventricular fibrillation c) Sinus rhythm d) Sinus arrest 19) Which of the following waves represents atrial depolarization? a) U wave b) Q wave c) T wave d) P wave 20) Which of the following places should the electrode for lead V4 be placed? a) The left leg b) Right arm c) The left side of the sternum, fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line d) The left side of the chest, fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line

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Run to the correct answer zone, whilst avoiding the enemies.. 1) Which of the following positions is best for performing an EKG?

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1) Which of the following can cause a false positive when obtaining a specimen for fecal occult blood testing? a) Collecting the sample from the first bowel movement of the day b) Consuming vitamin c and iron supplements c) Consuming a high fiber diet d) Discontinuing prescription medications 2) Which of the following is considered proper technique to avoid contamination during collection of a urine sample? a) Do not urinate directly into the urine container b) Avoid touching the inside of the container or the lid. c) Add a preservative to the midstream container. d) Ask the patient to wear gloves during collection into the container 3) Which of the following should be included when labeling a patient's specimen? a) Insurance company b) Diagnosis c) Address d) Collector's initials 4) Which specimen collection performs tests for substances that are sporadically released into the urine? a) 24-hour urine b) Clean catch c) Random d) First void 5) Which of the following is a normal range for a hemoglobin A1c? a) Less than 12.0% b) Less than 5.7% c) Less than 7.0% d) Less than 8.0% 6) Which of the following is the normal range for a total cholesterol? a) 40 to 150 mg/dL b) 70 to 100 mg/dL c) 130 to 200 mg/dL d) 150 to 220 mg/dL 7) Which of the following identifiers should be used to verify the patient before obtaining a specimen for laboratory collection? a) Name and date of birth b) Address and patient identification number c) Diagnosis and insurance information d) Patient's name and insurance information 8) Which of the following is required to be included on a urine specimen label prior to sending it to the laboratory? a) Insurance carrier b) Medication patient is taking c) Time the urine was collected d) Diagnosis of the patient 9) Which of the following is required when obtaining and transporting a drug screening? a) Chain of command b) Chain of custody c) Medical insurance card d) Authorization forms from an employer 10) In which of the following phases of quality assurance are instruments maintained and calibrated? a) Preanalytical phase b) Analytical phase c) Midanalytical phase d) Postanalytical phase 11) Ishihara plates are used to screen for what sensory disorder? a) Distance vision b) Near vision c) Vision acuity d) Color deficiency 12) Which of the following describes how an abnormal tympanogram appears on a graph when completed? a) A continuous up and down line b) A declining line c) A peak line d) A flat line 13) When performing a scratch test for allergen testing, which of the following is the amount of time that must pass before checking for a wheal formation? a) 5 min b) 10 min c) 15 min d) 25 min 14) How many days prior to skin testing should the patient discontinue antihistamines? a) 30 days b) 15 days c) 3 days d) 7 days 15) Which of the following is the number of successful and measured breathing maneuvers that a patient must complete during spirometry testing? a) Three b) Two c) Four d) One 16) Which of the following is the best instruction to give a patient on how to perform a peak flow test? a) "Take the deepest breath possible. Seal your lips around the mouthpiece. Blow out as hard and as fast as you can." b) "Take the deepest breath possible. Seal your lips around the mouthpiece. Inhale as much air as you can." c) "Blow all your air out of your lungs as much as possible. Seal your lips around the mouthpiece. Inhale as hard and as fast as you can." d) "Take the deepest breath possible. Seal your lips around the mouthpiece. Blow out in short, small puffs." 17) Which of the following could cause a specimen to be rejected from the lab? a) A fasting lab was drawn on a patient who ate breakfast. b) A handwritten lab requisition was sent with the specimen c) The urine specimen was left at room temperature in a urine collection cup for 4 hr. d) The name on the specimen label does not match the lab requisition. 18) Which of the following is an error that would affect the test results in the preanalytical phase (before the specimen is sent to the lab) of quality assurance? a) Equipment malfunction b) Excessive turnaround time c) Failure to report d) Order entry error 19) An adult with normal hearing should be able to hear tones at which of the following decibels? a) 15 decibels b) 20 decibels c) 25 decibels d) 10 decibels 20) Which of the following is the amount of time it takes to process a result for a urine pregnancy test? a) 3 min b) 1 min c) Immediately d) 5 min

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NHA: Point of Care Testing and Laboratory Procedures

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1) Which of the following can cause a false positive when obtaining a specimen for fecal occult blood testing?

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1) Which of the following is a virus? a) Escherichia coli (E. coli) b) Histoplasmosis c) Pinworms d) Varicella 2) Which of the following can be further classified as protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasite? a) Parasites b) Bacteria c) Viruses d) Fungi 3) Which of the following is a direct mode of transmission? a) Contact with an infected person b) Contact with a contaminated examination table c) Contact with a tick d) Contact with a pen 4) A health care worker is not feeling well and has a fever. In which of the following scenarios can the health care worker resume caring for patients? a) After being fever-free for 48 hr with the help of fever-reducing medications b) After being fever-free for 24 hr with the help of fever-reducing medications c) After being fever-free for 48 hr without the help of fever-reducing medications d) After being fever-free for 24 hr without the help of fever-reducing medications 5) According to the CDC, which of the following is the first step a medical assistant should take after exposure to blood? a) Report it to their supervisor. b) Receive a medical evaluation. c) Receive health counseling. d) Wash the area with soap and water. 6) A medical assistant is performing aseptic handwashing. How long should the assistant rub their hands vigorously with soap? a) 5 to 10 seconds b) 10 to 15 seconds c) 15 to 20 seconds d) 2 to 3 min 7) How often are health care facilities required to train their staff on guidelines for exposure to bloodborne pathogens? a) Biannually b) Annually c) Every 2 years d) The health care facility can determine when they want to train their staff 8) What is the minimum temperature that must be reached to ensure the sterility of autoclaved items? a) 93.3° C (200° F) b) 107.2° C (225° F) c) 135° C (275° F) d) 121.1° C (250° F) 9) According to CDC guidelines, when can sterilized packages be used? a) If the package is intact and has no tears but does show a watermark b) If the package has a small tear patched with tape c) If the package was stored near a sink on an open shelf d) If the package has been stored in a cool, dry area and does not show watermarks 10) When using chemical sterilization, how long do instruments need to be submerged to be considered sterilized? a) 6 hr b) 10 hr c) 8 hr d) 24 hr 11) How long should unwrapped items be sterilized in an autoclave? a) 10 min b) 15 min c) 20 min d) 40 min 12) Which of the following is the goal of surgical asepsis? a) To reduce the number of micro-organisms b) To eliminate pathogenic micro-organisms c) To try to reduce the risk of contamination d) To prohibit the growth of micro-organisms 13) In which of the following scenarios should a medical assistant use medical aseptic techniques? a) Washing hands prior to and after each patient encounter b) Assisting in the removal of a cyst c) Assisting with placing sutures on a cut leg d) Cleaning a deep wound on the forearm 14) Which of the following items should a medical assistant dispose of in a biohazard waste bag? a) Gauze that fell on the ground b) A used needle c) Gauze contaminated with blood d) A used mask 15) Gloves should be worn during which of the following medical office tasks? a) Cleaning the front office table b) Performing a blood pressure reading for a patient c) Handling anything contaminated with blood d) Handling unused suture scissors 16) How often should the exposure control plan be updated if there are no changes? a) Monthly b) Quarterly c) Annually d) Every 5 years 17) In a health care setting, which of the following is the minimum amount of alcohol content that can be used in an alcoholbased sanitizer? a) 40% b) 55% c) 60% d) 90% 18) OSHA regulations require employers to make which of the following vaccines available at no cost to health care workers? a) Hepatitis A b) Hepatitis B c) Varicella d) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) 19) Which of the following is a common symptom of contracting an infectious disease? a) Numbness and tingling b) Headache c) Blurry vision d) Difficulty breathing 20) Which of the following precautions should a medical assistant consider when a person is coughing or sneezing? a) Droplet precautions b) Airborne precautions c) Contact precautions d) Transmission-based precautions

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1) Which of the following is a virus? 2) Which of the following can be further classified as protozoa, helminths, and ectoparasite?

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1) Which of the following areas are considered sterile? a) The area below the Mayo stand b) The drape on the Mayo stand that is 12 inches or more away from the body c) The 1-inch edge of the inside of a sterile instrument packet d) The outermost wrapper of a sterile instrument packet 2) Which of the following is the proper technique for removing surgical staples? a) Use the scissors and forceps included in the kit. b) Begin with the first staple and remove each in a row until all have been removed. c) Place the lower tip of the sterile staple remover under the staple and squeeze the handle together until they are completely closed. d) Once the remover is under the staple, squeeze the handles and, at the same time, lift slowly but with moderate pressure. 3) Which of the following is the priority action for a major burn, such as a fourth-degree burn? a) Call 911. b) Apply a lotion, such as aloe vera c) Place the burn under cool running water. d) Apply a bandage. 4) A medical assistant observes a patient in the waiting room placing their hands around their throat and collapsing. Which of the following is most likely the cause? a) Hypoglycemia b) Seizure c) Obstructed airway d) Syncope 5) Which of the following phases of wound healing occurs at approximately day 10? a) Proliferative b) Inflammatory c) Maturation d) Dehiscence 6) Which of the following procedures provide a better view of cervical cells to send to pathology? a) Endoscopy b) Colposcopy c) Cryosurgery d) Incision and drainage 7) Which of the following kinds of wound complication causes only the edges of the wound to separate? a) Dehiscence b) Evisceration c) Hemorrhaging d) Infection 8) A provider asks a medical assistant to start filling out the prior authorizations form for a power wheelchair for a patient. Which of the following is the purpose of submitting a prior authorization? a) To request an item be categorized as durable medical equipment, prosthetics, orthotics, and supplies (DMEPOS) b) To request approval for an item to be included on the CMS's Master List c) To request approval from the insurance company for coverage of an item before a claim is submitted d) To request approval for a provider to be an approved prescriber of DMEPOS 9) Which of the following conditions would be an indication for the use of an automated external defibrillator (AED)? a) Cardiac arrest b) Hypovolemic shock c) Seizure d) Syncope 10) Which of the following is the ratio of compressions to breaths when performing CPR on an adult? a) 30 chest compressions: 1 breath b) 30 chest compressions: 2 breaths c) 15 chest compressions: 1 breath d) 15 chest compressions: 2 breaths 11) Which of the following should the medical assistant identify when assigned to check the emergency kit or crash cart? a) The automated external defibrillator (AED) is checked after every use. b) The emergency kit is in the same, accessible area c) Expired medications are in the front to be used first. d) Pediatric doses on all medications should be marked with permanent marker. 12) An incision and drainage (I&D) procedure would be indicated for which of the following conditions? a) A tender mass or pustule under the dermal tissue b) Cervical dysplasia c) Suspicious mole on the face d) Soft tissue tumor on the breast 13) In which of the following medical emergency situations does a patient exhibit pale and clammy skin, rapid pulse and respirations, and the patient appearing weak and becomes unresponsive with dilated pupils? a) Hypoglycemia b) Hypothermia c) Syncope d) Shock 14) Which of the following steps should the medical assistant take to ensure an instrument packet is sterile? a) Check to make sure only one instrument is in each packet. b) Check to make sure the instrument packet has autoclave tape around it with white markings on it. c) Check to make sure the inside of the wrapper is sterile by placing a piece of autoclave tape on it. d) Check for the autoclave indicator strip and expiration date. 15) A 14-year-old patient has a laceration on their face from playing field hockey. Which of the following should be the recommended type of suture? a) Absorbable, size 4-0 b) Absorbable, size 6-0 c) Non-absorbable, size 4-0 d) Non-absorbable, size 6-0 16) A medical assistant is examining a patient's wound, which appears red and swollen with yellowish drainage. Which of the following wound complications would be suspected? a) Dehiscence b) Evisceration c) Hemorrhaging d) Infection 17) Prior to notifying the provider, which of the following steps should you take for a patient with a deep cut on their arm? a) Apply a tourniquet. b) Determine if the bleeding is arterial or venous, which determines what action must be taken. c) Provide the patient with sterile gauze and instruct the patient to apply pressure and elevate the arm d) Use either a suture or surgical staples to close the wound and prevent further bleeding. 18) Which of the following is an appropriate treatment for a patient with a sprained ankle? a) Place a cool, wet cloth on the ankle to ease the pain b) Apply ice, elevate, and wear a compression bandage on their ankle. c) Refer them to an orthopedic surgeon to have their ankle repositioned. d) Apply a sterile bandage around the ankle to prevent swelling. 19) A patient collapses in front of a medical assistant and is unresponsive. A co-worker is calling 911 and alerting the provider. Which of the following steps is the medical assistant responsible for taking first? a) Run with the co-worker to notify the provider. b) Begin chest compressions. c) Apply automated external defibrillator (AED) pads d) Check the patient's pulse and breathing. 20) A provider requests additional forceps during a surgical procedure. Which of the following steps should the medical assistant take? a) Grab another instrument packet containing forceps. Open the packet and hand the forceps to the provider. b) Grab another instrument packet containing forceps and place the packet on the Mayo stand. c) Without touching the drape on the Mayo stand, open the sterile package and drop the forceps into the sterile field. d) Without touching the outer wrapper, open the sterile package and hand the provider the forceps to ensure they do not touch the sterile field.

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1) Which of the following areas are considered sterile? 2) Which of the following is the proper technique for removing surgical staples?

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1) Which of the following supplies or equipment should be in each examination room? a) Sigmoidoscope b) EKG machine c) Biohazard waste container d) Examination table with stirrups 2) You work in a gastroenterology practice and need to prepare a patient for a colonoscopy. Which of the following positions should the patient be in? a) Prone b) Left lateral c) Semi-Fowler's d) Trendelenburg 3) In which of the following specialties would a medical assistant most likely perform a spirometry test in? a) Pulmonology b) Cardiology c) Gynecology d) Endocrinology 4) Which of the following is true of patient drug allergies? a) Medication allergies should be asked about and updated during each patient visit. b) Signs and symptoms of allergic reactions will occur within 2 min of exposure to the allergen. c) A patient without an allergic reaction to a medication will not have a reaction to it in the future. d) Most allergic reactions will result in anaphylaxis. 5) A medical assistant is preparing a prescription for a medical order. The patient is prescribed 20 mg of a medication once a day by mouth for 30 days. The dosage on hand is 10 mg tablets. Which of the following shows how many tablets the patient should take per day and how many the assistant should order? a) 2 tablets per day, 60 tablets b) 1 tablet per day, 60 tablets c) 2 tablets per day, 30 tablets d) 1 tablet per day, 30 tablets 6) A medical assistant has just opened a new multidose vial of insulin to administer to a patient. The manufacturer's expiration date is in 2 months and it is currently July 1st. Which of the following expiration dates should the assistant write on the vial? a) September 1st b) July 29th c) July 15th d) January 1st 7) When performing an eye instillation, which of the following instructions should the medical assistant give to the patient? a) The patient should look towards the ceiling with the affected eye open. b) The patient should look towards the ceiling with both eyes open. c) The patient should look towards the floor with both eyes open d) The patient should look towards the floor with the affected eye open. 8) Which of the following categories will the patient's insurance information belong in the patient's health record? a) Correspondence data b) Clinical information c) Demographic data d) Social information 9) A computerized provider order entry (CPOE) system allows more efficient medical entry and prescription-ordering electronically. Once a healthcare provider logs into the electronic health record (EHR), which of the following should be the provider's next step? a) Enter the prescription into the EHR. b) Send the order to the pharmacy. c) Select the patient from a patient list. d) Validate an order against the patient's medical record. 10) A patient is requesting a telehealth appointment with a provider. After a brief discussion with the patient, the medical assistant informs them that they are not eligible for a telehealth appointment. Which of the following could make the patient ineligible? a) The patient fell on vacation and suspects their leg is broken. b) The patient has a suspicious mole that needs to be inspected. c) The patient asks for a new prescription. d) The patient has depression and is seeking counseling. 11) When entering a patient's new prescription in the medical record, the medical assistant notices a message alerting them to a dosage error. Which of the following software options automatically checks for medication errors and interactions? a) Clinical decision support system (CDSS) b) Computerized provider order entry (CPOE) system c) Electronic health record (EHR) system d) Electronic medication administration record (eMAR) 12) A medical assistant is scheduling a patient's follow-up appointment and the patient is requesting a telehealth visit. Which of the following guidance should the assistant offer the patient? a) Tell the patient they must get their vital signs taken prior to the visit. b) Provide the patient a list of software and technical requirements for the appointment. c) Let the patient know that the appointment can be in a public place as lowered voices are used. d) Inform the patient that a public-facing video communication application, such as social media platforms are acceptable. 13) A medical assistant is discussing a controlled substance prescription for a new patient. The patient asks if it can be sent electronically to a specific pharmacy close to their house. Which of the following answers should the assistant give the patient? a) No. New prescriptions cannot be filled electronically. b) No. Medications that are controlled substances cannot be sent electronically. c) Yes, but a paper prescription is preferred. d) Yes, as long as the pharmacy is using approved and certified software. 14) A medical assistant is assisting a patient after a colonoscopy. Which of the following should the assistant inform the patient of in case the patient experiences pain or bleeding? a) Post-procedure discomfort and mild pain is common. b) The patient should notify the healthcare provider. c) Rest and inform the healthcare provider if it continues for more than 10 days. d) Do not notify the healthcare provider and go immediately to the emergency room. 15) An adult patient needs assistance onto the examination table. However, the medical assistant needs to prepare the supplies for administering an injection to the patient, of which the medication is in another room. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Assist the patient down from the exam table until the medical assistant is able to assemble all the supplies. b) Schedule the injection for the patient's next appointment. c) Ask the patient's companion or another medical assistant to sit with the patient until the original assistant returns. d) Leave the patient in the room and quickly assemble the supplies needed. 16) A medical assistant observes a patient having an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following steps should the assistant immediately take? a) Administer loratadine. b) Attach automated external defibrillator (AED) pads. c) Begin CPR. d) Notify the provider. 17) A medical assistant is administering a subcutaneous insulin injection to a patient. Which of the following is the angle of injection and type of tissue that the assistant should be targeting? a) 15°, dermis b) 45°, dermis c) 90°, muscle d) 45°, adipose 18) A patient needs an administration of an influenza vaccine during their medical visit. What needle size, angle, and site should the medical assistant select for an intramuscular (IM) injection? a) 25-gauge, 15° angle, anterior forearm b) 27-gauge, 45° angle, abdominal region c) 20-gauge, 90° angle, deltoid muscle d) 18-gauge, 5° angle, abdominal region 19) Which of the following is true of electronic prescribing of prescriptions? a) An electronic prescription may only be transmitted electronically. b) Since the patient is directly delivering the prescription, written prescriptions are faster than electronic prescriptions. c) Electronic prescriptions can reduce the risk of the prescription being tampered with. d) Electronic prescriptions may result in more calls to the healthcare provider. 20) When storing or organizing vials of vaccines, which of the following actions should the medical assistant take? a) If additional room is required, vaccines may be temporarily stored in the same refrigerator as the staff's items. b) Vaccines should be stored in the freezer between -50° C and -15° C (-58° F and 5° F). c) Use the vial with the latest expiration date to ensure the highest quality of a vaccine is being administered. d) Check the expiration date of all vials being stored or organized.

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A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.. 1) Which of the following supplies or equipment should be in each examination room?

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1) A patient enters the office and lets a medical assistant know the handrail outside the office door is loose. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Thank the patient and let the supervisor know immediately so it can be fixed b) Thank the patient for the information and let the supervisior know when the assistant has time c) Thank the patient for the information and write a note to let maintenance know at the end of the day so they can fix it. d) Thank the patient for the information and make no changes, since the patient may or may not be correct about the state of the handrail. 2) A patient who had a stroke has left-sided weakness and uses a cane to ambulate. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to ensure the patient's safety? a) Stay with the patient until the provider comes into the examination room. b) Set the patient's cane against the examination table so it does not obstruct the patient's path c) Assist the patient onto the examination table. d) Wait until the provider is ready to call the patient into the examination room. 3) A patient states they have smoked a pack of cigarettes every day for the past 20 years. In which section of the patient's medical record should the medical assistant document this information? a) Family history b) Social history c) Past medical history d) Occupational history 4) A medical assistant enters a patient's examination room to administer a pneumococcal vaccination. Which of the following identifiers should the assistant use to verify the patient? a) Name and address b) Name and Social Security number c) Name and mother's maiden name d) Name and date of birth 5) Which of the following is found in the demographic section of a patient's medical record and needs verification at the beginning of each visit? a) Medications b) Address c) Medical record number d) Diagnosis codes 6) A patient states, "It burns when I urinate," when asked the reason for their visit. In which of the following sections of the patient's medical record should the medical assistant document this information? a) Review of systems b) Chief complaint c) Past medical history d) Social history 7) A 21-year-old patient arrives at the office and reports lower abdominal pain. During the patient interview process, the patient seems to have difficulty concentrating and appears to have a sense of panic. Which of the following should the medical assistant identify as a potential cause of their behavior? a) Depression b) Dementia c) Aggression d) Anxiety 8) A patient states they work in construction and that their primary job is breaking up concrete with jack hammers. In which of the following sections of the patient's medical record should the medical assistant document this information? a) Medical history b) Chief complaint c) Occupational history d) Social history 9) A patient's blood pressure is 136/84 mm Hg. The medical assistant should identify that this blood pressure reading falls into which of the following categories? a) Normal b) Stage 1 hypertension c) Elevated d) Hypertensive crisis 10) A stethoscope is typically placed over which of the following arteries when blood pressure is auscultated? a) Femoral b) Radial c) Brachial d) Carotid 11) A 64-year-old patient arrives at the office and reports frequent dizzy spells. After completing routine vital signs, which of the following actions should the medical assistant take next? a) Perform a pulse oximetry. b) Recheck body temperature. c) Perform orthostatic vital signs. d) Assess pain level. 12) A 7-year-old patient reports feeling "hot and sweaty." After taking the patient's oral temperature, a medical assistant documents a temperature that falls within the expected range for their age. Which of the following numbers should the assistant expect to see? a) 36° C (96.8° F) b) 37.6° C (99.7° F) c) 38.9° C (102° F) d) 37° C (98.6° F) 13) A 3-year-old child is being seen for ear pain. Which of the following should be used to obtain the child's temperature? a) Axillary b) Oral c) Tympanic d) Temporal artery 14) A medical assistant should identify that a patient who has a body mass index (BMI) greater than 30 falls into which of the following categories? a) Underweight b) Normal c) Overweight d) Obese 15) Which of the following methods should a medical assistant use to help patients feel comfortable about having their weight measured in the office? a) Reassure them that their weight is at a healthy level. b) Allow them to weigh themselves at home and bring the results into the office. c) Let them keep their shoes and outerwear on during the weighing process. d) Place the scale in a private area within the office. 16) A medical assistant is obtaining a patient's vital signs. After measuring the heart rate, the assistant documents 50/min. Which of the following terms best describes this? a) Hypotension b) Bradycardia c) Tachypnea d) Tachycardia 17) Which of the following vital signs for a 67-year-old patient is outside the expected reference range? a) Temperature 36.5º C (97.8º F), heart rate 106/min, respiratory rate 20/min, BP 116/74 mm Hg b) Temperature 37º C (98.6º F), heart rate 98/min, respiratory rate 14/min, BP 118/78 mm Hg c) Temperature 36.7º C (98.2º F), heart rate 98/min, respiratory rate 20/min, BP 114/76 mm Hg d) Temperature 37.0º C (98.6º F), heart rate 88/min, respiratory rate 18/min, BP 108/78 mm Hg 18) A 35-year-old established patient is in the office for an annual checkup. They report feeling great, and they appear to be in good physical condition. According to office policy, a medical assistant should check their blood pressure using the aneroid sphygmomanometer and temperature using an axillary thermometer. Their vital signs are BP 118/88 mm Hg, respiratory rate 16/min, temperature 39.1° C (102.4° F), heart rate 62/min. Given these vitals, which of the following steps should the assistant take next? a) Recheck the blood pressure using an electronic sphygmomanometer. b) Notify the provider of the patient's elevated temperature c) Measure their temperature again with a different type of thermometer d) Ask the patient if they have had anything hot or cold to drink within the last hour. 19) Which of the following manifestations should a medical assistant expect to see in a patient who has COPD? a) Orthopnea b) Weight gain c) Hypotension d) Bradycardia 20) Which of the following methods should a medical assistant use to obtain a weight measurement from a patient who uses a walker and has balance concerns? a) Use a scale with built-in handrails. b) Ask the patient to report their approximate weight. c) Place the patient's walker over the scale. d) Help the patient onto the scale and assure them they only need to stand for a few seconds.

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1) A patient enters the office and lets a medical assistant know the handrail outside the office door is loose. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

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1) Which of the following abbreviations is used to indicate a heart attack? a) CVA b) BP c) PVD d) MI 2) According to the Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list, which of the following should never be abbreviated? a) Disease names b) Body part names c) Medication names d) Test names 3) Which of the following does the root word dermat refer to? a) Sweat b) Skin c) Hair d) Nail 4) Which of the following diseases is a patient referring to if they say, "Lou Gehrig's disease"? a) Diabetes mellitus b) Multiple sclerosis c) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d) Transient ischemic attacks 5) Which of the following describes the position of the head to the chest when a person is in the anatomical position? a) Inferior b) Superior c) Anterior d) Dorsal 6) Which of the following is a common symptom of depression? a) Overwhelming worry b) Feelings of hopelessness c) Flashbacks d) Trouble following directions 7) Which of the following is an example of a physical stressor on the body? a) Pollution of air b) Loss of a loved one c) Loss of job d) Medical bills 8) Which of the following is a helpful accommodation for a patient who has partial vision loss? a) Rubber coverings on floors b) Speaking louder c) Directing information through a family member d) Large print materials 9) Which of the following defense mechanisms is a patient engaging in if they state, "The lab must have mixed up the samples, I don't have diabetes?" a) Projection b) Identification c) Denial d) Regression 10) A patient is told their kidney disease has progressed to the point of dialysis. Which of the following stages of grief is the patient experiencing if they are beginning to explore dietary changes? a) Denial b) Anger c) Bargaining d) Depression 11) Which of the following mental health conditions tend to present as hyperactivity in young males? a) Anxiety b) Depression c) Posttraumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) d) ADHD 12) In which of the following stages of development is the goal to achieve a balance between concern for the next generation and being self-absorbed? a) Generativity vs stagnation b) Identity vs role confusion c) Trust vs mistrust d) Initiative vs guilt 13) Which of the following body cavities travels down the midline of the back? a) Thoracic cavity b) Spinal cavity c) Abdominal cavity d) Pelvic cavity 14) Which of the following is a bone of the lower extremities? a) Scapula b) Carpals c) Sacrum d) Metatarsals 15) Which of the following describes the body's systems and biological processes to maintain stability? a) Digestion b) Respiration c) Homeostasis d) Filtration 16) Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder leading to changes in the connective tissues of the body, especially the joints? a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Gout c) Muscular dystrophy d) Myalgia 17) Which of the following is a symptom of shingles? a) Blistering rash b) Facial droop c) Decreased urine output d) Distorted vision 18) Which of the following can be diagnosed during a colonoscopy? a) Diverticulosis b) GERD c) Celiac disease d) Urinary tract infection (UTI) 19) For which of the following is a history of inflammatory bowel disease a risk factor? a) COPD b) Osteoporosis c) Chronic kidney disease d) Colorectal cancer 20) Which of the following describes an illness constantly present in a community? a) Outbreak b) Endemic c) Epidemic d) Pandemic

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Tap each box in turn to open them up and reveal the item inside.. 1) Which of the following abbreviations is used to indicate a heart attack?

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1) Which of the following statements describes a patient-centered medical home (PCMH)? a) It is an umbrella term for plans that provide health care in return for preset scheduled payments and coordinated care b) It is a care delivery model supported by an interdisciplinary team and led by a primary care provider (PCP) c) It is nursing care and therapy delivered to a patient in their home following an acute event d) It is an inpatient care facility for patients who are at the end of life 2) Which of the following is an impact of patient portals? a) Increased wait times for results b) Increased demand on the care team c) Increased face-to-face visits d) Increased transparency 3) Which of the following is a component of the quadruple aim, which drives value-based care? a) Increased testing b) Increased revenue c) Improved patient outcomes d) Improved prevention screening 4) To which of the following allied health professionals should a medical assistant inititate a referral to for a provider who has ordered support to assist with improving a patient's range of motion? a) Radiology technician b) Occupational therapist c) Nurse practitioner d) Physical therapist 5) Which of the following responsibilities is appropriate for a medical assistant who works in an administrative capacity? a) Performing an EKG b) Preparing medications c) Obtaining vital signs d) Collecting copays 6) Which of the following medication classifications should be used for a patient who is experiencing seasonal allergies? a) Antihypertensives b) Antihistamines c) Diuretics d) Antipyretics 7) Which of the following schedules of controlled medications can be prescribed with up to a year's worth of refills, if authorized by the provider? a) Schedule II b) Schedule II c) Schedule IV d) Schedule V 8) A patient with chronic kidney disease is being directed to avoid ibuprofen due to the strain it puts on the kidneys. This is an example of which of the following? a) Side effect b) Adverse effect c) Contraindication d) Indication 9) Which of the following actions of pharmacokinetics is most impacted by age? a) Absorption b) Distribution c) Metabolism d) Excretion 10) Which of the following actions describes the medical assistant's role in confirming "the right medication," in terms of medication administration? a) Assessing the benefits and risks of a medication b) Stating the name of the medication, who ordered it, and the intended effect of the medication c) Informing the patient of the indication for the medication d) Evaluating the patient for effects 11) Albuterol (Proventil HFA) is an example of which of the following classifications? a) Anticoagulant b) Bronchodilator c) Antiemetic d) Antipsychotic 12) A patient calls in with a question about one of their medications but does not remember the name of the medication and states, "It's a small, oval-shaped pink pill." The patient's medical record indicates they are currently taking ten medications. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Consult the Physician's Desk Reference for clarification b) Instruct the patient to seek help from a family member or the pharmacy c) Ask the patient to bring the medication into the clinic to verify what it is d) Type the patient's description into an online search engine to determine the answer 13) Which of the following is an example of a simple carbohydrate? a) Honey b) Vegetables c) Pasta d) Beans 14) Which of the following is the first step a patient who has Stage I chronic kidney disease should take to adapt their diet? a) Limit sodium b) Decrease phosphorus intake c) Control potassium intake d) Avoid gluten products 15) Which of the following supplements is also a naturally occurring hormone in the brain that is related to sleep? a) Gingko biloba b) Willow bark c) Melatonin d) Black cohosh 16) Which of the following is a warning sign for anorexia and should be reported to a provider immediately? a) Weight loss of at least 5% b) Increased frequency of menstrual periods c) Buying and consuming large amounts of food d) Excessive exercising 17) Which of the following is considered an injectable parenteral route of medication administration? a) Subcutaneous b) Oral c) Topical d) Vaginal 18) Which of the following forms of medication are delivered orally? a) Foams b) Mist c) Lozenges d) Powders 19) A pediatrician prescribes a medication for a 5-year-old child, with the dosage listed as "x mg/kg/day, divided over 3 doses a day." Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take to determine how much medication the child should receive per dose? a) Measure and record the child's height b) Convert the child's weight to kilograms c) Multiply the daily dose by three d) Ask the provider to clarify how much medication should be given in each dose 20) How often should medication allergies be discussed with a patient? a) Annually b) At every visit c) Every 3 years d) Each phone call, portal message, or encounter with the patient

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NHA: Foundational Knowledge and Basic Science

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1) Which of the following statements describes a patient-centered medical home (PCMH)? 2) Which of the following is an impact of patient portals?

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1) What does a therapeutic medication do? a) a. Removes the agent of disease b) b. Treats the condition c) c. Replaces substances naturally found in the body d) d. Used to reduce the severity of a disease 2) What does a curative mediation do? a) a. Removes the agent of disease b) b. Treats the condition c) c. Replaces substances naturally found in the body d) d. Used to reduce the severity of a disease 3) What does a preventative medication do? a) a. Removes the agent of disease b) b. Treats the condition c) c. Replaces substances naturally found in the body d) d. Used to reduce the severity of a disease 4) What does a replacement medication do? a) a. Removes the agent of disease b) b. Treats the condition c) c. Replaces substances naturally found in the body d) d. Used to reduce the severity of a disease 5) Tylenol is an example of? a) a. Chemical name b) b. Generic name c) c. Trade name d) d. Molecular name 6) acetaminophen is an example of? a) a. Chemical name b) b. Generic name c) c. Trade name d) d. Molecular name 7) Which scheduled drug CANNOT be prescribed in the United States? a) a. Schedule I b) b. Schedule II c) c. Schedule III d) d. Schedule IV 8) Which is an example of a drug form? a) a. Rectal b) b. Vaginal c) c. Tablet d) d. Inhalation 9) Which is an example of a drug route? a) a. Powder b) b. Capsules c) c. Sublingual d) d. Suspension 10) Which scheduled drug has a low potential to be abused? a) Schedule I b) Schedule II c) Schedule III d) Schedule IV e) Schedule V

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1) What does a therapeutic medication do? 2) What does a curative mediation do? 3) What does a preventative medication do?

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A patient weighs 112 pounds. What is their weight in kilograms? - 50.91 kg, A patient weighs 223 pounds. What is their weight in kilograms? - 101.36 kg.

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granulocyte - granular WBC, hematologist - one who specializes in blood, hyperlipidemia - pathological condition of excessive amounts of fat in the blood, vasculitis - inflammation of the blood vessels, erythoplastin - hormone that stimulates the production of RBCS, anisocytosis - condition in which the erythrocytes are unequal in size and shape, coagulable - capable of forming a clot, erythrocytosis - abnormal condition in where there is an increase in production of RBCs, hematoma - collection of blood that has escaped from a blood vessel into the surrounding tissues, leukapheresis - separation of WBCs from the blood, pancytopenia - lack of the cellular elements of the blood, splenomegaly - abnormal enlargement of the spleen, thrombosis - formation, development of a blood clot in the vascular system,

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granulocyte - granular WBC, hematologist - one who specializes in blood, hyperlipidemia - pathological condition of excessive amounts of fat in the blood.

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1) Which of the following questions should a medical assistant ask a patient prior to obtaining a blood specimen for a lipid panel? a) "Do you smoke cigarettes?" b) "When was the last time you had anything to eat or drink?" c) "Do you have any medical allergies?" d) "Have you taken acetaminophen within the last 12 hours?" 2) Which of the following often requires chain of custody documentation? a) Blood cultures b) Drug screenings c) Chemistry studies d) Plasma determinations 3) A medical assistant is performing a phlebotomy draw on a patient who reports feeling lightheaded and restless. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Ask the patient to take some deep breaths. b) Finish the procedure as quickly as possible. c) Stop the procedure and alert the provider. d) Have the patient squeeze the assistant's hand for comfort. 4) While preparing the phlebotomy equipment for a blood draw, the medical assistant notices the patient appears very anxious. Which of the following questions should the assistant ask the patient to ensure the patient's safety? a) "Would you like some water?" b) "Can you sit still for the procedure?" c) "Why are you so anxious?" d) "Have you ever fainted during a phlebotomy test?" 5) Which of the following steps should a medical assistant take if they are unsure which tube to use when obtaining a blood specimen? a) Draw one tube of each color to ensure one of them is the appropriate tube b) Ask another medical assistant. c) Draw one extra red-top tube. d) Consult the laboratory reference manual. 6) How many times should an EDTA tube be inverted? a) 2 to 4 times b) 4 to 6 times c) 6 to 8 times d) 8 to 10 times 7) Which of the following additives is found in light blue blood tubes? a) Serum separator gel b) Clot activator c) Sodium citrate d) Lithium heparin 8) In which of the following places should a medical assistant first attempt to locate a vein? a) Antecubital space b) Foot c) Wrist d) Back of the hand 9) Which of the following is the preferred alcohol concentration for disinfecting the skin prior to a phlebotomy test? a) 70% b) 40% c) 90% d) 100% 10) Which of the following color tubes should be drawn first? a) Green b) Red c) Gray and red marbled d) Lavender 11) Which of the following is the appropriate needle size when using a butterfly system? a) 20-gauge, ⅝-inch b) 20-gauge, ½-inch c) 22-gauge, ¼-inch d) 22-gauge, ½-inch 12) Which of the following is a postanalytical consideration in phlebotomy? a) Improper data entry b) Insufficient quantity for testing c) Mislabeling of specimen tubes d) Error in patient identification 13) Which of the following is the minimum amount of time a medical assistant should instruct a patient to leave their bandage in place following a phlebotomy or capillary puncture? a) 5 min b) 15 min c) 10 min d) 20 min 14) Which of the following is a characteristic of collecting timed specimens? a) They require specific preparation of the skin. b) They monitor therapeutic medication levels. c) They must be collected in the morning. d) They must be obtained from the basilic vein. 15) How long should serum specimens be allowed to clot prior to centrifugation? a) 30 min b) 2 hr c) 5 min d) 15 min 16) A medical assistant is preparing to centrifuge a blood sample when they notice the centrifuge is 3 months overdue for calibration. Which of the following actions should the assistant take? a) Attempt to calibrate the device themselves b) Run the sample. c) Notify the laboratory supervisor and use another device. d) Remove the service label and use the centrifuge. 17) Which of the following information should be included on a laboratory requisition form? a) Provider's tax identification number b) Patient's height c) Patient's weight d) . Diagnosis code 18) How should critical laboratory values be handled when they are received at the office? a) Call the patient and ask them to schedule an appointment b) Enter the values in the patient's chart. c) Report the critical values to the provider right away and document that the provider was notified. d) Ask the nurse to check the report. 19) How should light-sensitive samples be prepared for transport? a) They should be wrapped in foil. b) They should be placed in gauze c) They should be positioned in an ice bath d) They should be rolled in a biohazard bag. 20) A clinic has just received laboratory results for a patient indicating an error with the sample. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take first? a) Schedule a follow-up appointment with the patient. b) Input the results in the patient's medical record. c) Forward the results and alert the ordering provider. d) Call the patient to inform them a mistake was made in the laboratory

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1) Which of the following questions should a medical assistant ask a patient prior to obtaining a blood specimen for a lipid panel?

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birth to 1 month - generally helpless, 1 - 2 months - raises head from surface when lying on stomach, 2 - 3 months - coos and makes other vocal sounds, 3 - 4 months - able to hold head erect, 4 - 5 months - reaches for and hold objects, 5 - 6 months - turns back from stomach, 6 - 7 months - distinguishes emotions by voice tones, 7 - 8 months - crawls on hands and knees, 8 - 9 months - says mama or dada, 9 - 12 months - pulls self up, 12 - 15 months - walks by self, 15 - 18 months - can say six words, 18 months - 2 years - runs, 2 - 3 years - stays dry during the day and night, 4 - 5 years - can catch a tossed ball,

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birth to 1 month - generally helpless, 1 - 2 months - raises head from surface when lying on stomach, 2 - 3 months - coos and makes other vocal sounds.

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1) Which of the following is the age group for pediatrics? a) prenatal to 21 yo b) days old to 21 yo c) days old to 20 yo d) prenatal to 20 yo 2) Which age group is 6 to 10 years of age? a) toddler b) preschool c) school-age d) adolescent 3) Which age group is 1 to 3 years of age? a) toddler b) preschool c) school-age d) adolescent 4) Which age group is 12 to 18 years of age? a) adolescent b) teen c) young adult d) adult 5) Which of the following is not a proper position to hold the child? a) cradle b) football c) upright d) supine 6) What is the average APGAR score? a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9 7) Which milestone is present in a 2-month-old? a) raises head from surface b) able to hold head erect c) turns from back to stomach d) crawls on hands and knees 8) Which milestone is present in an 8-month-old? a) crawls on hand and kn b) pulls self up at side of crib c) waves bye-bye d) disinguishes emotions by voice rones 9) Which of the following is a common interval for a well-child? a) 10 months b) 2 weeks c) 15 months d) 8 months 10) What is the normal rate of BPM in infants? a) 75-129 b) 90-150 c) 100-160 d) 80-100 11) Which pathology is related to GI disorders? a) asthma b) strep throat c) febrile seizures d) colic 12) Which vaccine can be given at birth? a) Hep A b) Hep B c) Hep C d) Hep D 13) Which vaccine is given via the oral route? a) Hep B b) Rotavirus c) DTaP d) TDaP 14) Which vaccine protects against poliovirus? a) TDaP b) DTaP c) IPV d) HPV 15) Which vaccine protects against chickenpox? a) MMR b) TDaP c) HPV d) Varicella

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1) Which of the following is the age group for pediatrics? 2) Which age group is 6 to 10 years of age? 3) Which age group is 1 to 3 years of age?

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1) What test(s) are done at birth? 2) Which test checks for a metabolic disorder? 3) Lead & Hemoglobin/Hematocrit (H/H) are done at what ages?

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1) When the caregiver consistently responds to the child's hunger cues, providing nourishment sensitively and reliably, the child learns that their needs will be met. a) Trust vs mistrust b) autonomy vs shame/doubt c) initiative vs guilt d) industry vs inferiority e) identity vs role confusion f) intimacy vs isolation 2) If the caregiver is neglectful, inconsistent, or insensitive in feeding, the child may experience discomfort, distress, and hunger. a) Trust vs mistrust b) autonomy vs shame/doubt c) initiative vs guilt d) industry vs inferiority e) identity vs role confusion f) intimacy vs isolation 3) When parents approach toilet training in a patient, supportive manner, allowing the child to learn at their own pace, the child may feel a sense of accomplishment and autonomy. a) Trust vs mistrust b) autonomy vs shame/doubt c) initiative vs guilt d) industry vs inferiority e) identity vs role confusion f) intimacy vs isolation 4) if the process is rushed, if there's too much pressure, or if parents respond with anger or disappointment to accidents, the child may feel shame and start doubting their abilities. a) Trust vs mistrust b) autonomy vs shame/doubt c) initiative vs guilt d) industry vs inferiority e) identity vs role confusion f) intimacy vs isolation 5) When caregivers encourage and support children to take the initiative, they can start planning activities, accomplish tasks, and face challenges. a) Trust vs mistrust b) autonomy vs shame/doubt c) initiative vs guilt d) industry vs inferiority e) identity vs role confusion f) intimacy vs isolation 6) If caregivers discourage the pursuit of independent activities or dismiss or criticize their efforts, children may feel guilty about their desires and initiatives. a) Trust vs mistrust b) autonomy vs shame/doubt c) initiative vs guilt d) industry vs inferiority e) identity vs role confusion f) intimacy vs isolation 7) If children are encouraged by parents and teachers to develop skills, they gain a sense of industry-a feeling of competence and belief in their skills.f a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 8) If children are encouraged by parents and teachers to develop skills, they gain a sense of industry-a feeling of competence and belief in their skills.f a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 9) if children receive negative feedback or are not allowed to demonstrate their skills, they may develop a sense of inferiority. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 10) If adolescents are supported in their exploration and given the freedom to explore different roles, they are likely to emerge from this stage with a strong sense of self and a feeling of independence and control. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 11) If adolescents are restricted and not given the space to explore or find the process too overwhelming or distressing, they may experience role confusion. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 12) Individuals who successfully navigate this stage are able to form intimate, reciprocal relationships with others. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 13) If individuals struggle to form these close relationships, perhaps due to earlier unresolved identity crises or fear of rejection, they may experience isolation. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 14) If individuals feel they are making valuable contributions to the world, for instance, through raising children or contributing to positive changes in society, they will feel a sense of generativity. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 15) If individuals feel they are not making a positive impact or are not involved in productive or creative tasks, they may experience stagnation. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 16) If individuals feel they have lived a fulfilling and meaningful life, they will experience ego integrity. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair 17) if individuals feel regretful about their past, feel they have made poor decisions, or believe they've failed to achieve their life goals, they may experience despair. a) industry vs inferiority b) identity vs role confusion c) intimacy vs isolation d) generativity vs stagnation e) integrity vs despair

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1) When the caregiver consistently responds to the child's hunger cues, providing nourishment sensitively and reliably, the child learns that their needs will be met.

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1) Which of the following is an administrative pre-op function for an MA? a) reviewing informed consent b) insurance verification c) cleaning site with sterile gauze d) scheduling follow-up visits 2) Which of the following is true of implied consent? a) requires a signature from the patient b) patient must be of sound mind and an adult (or emancipated) c) used in procedures like venipuncture and blood pressure d) always needed for minor office surgeries 3) All of the following is needed for informed consent except: a) right to treat form must be signed within one year of procedure b) provider must disclose risks and benefits of the procedure and deny the procedure c) The provider must discuss alternatives, if any d) signature required to document understanding of the procedure 4) Which of the following is a MA duty intraop? a) cautery b) dissecting under provider direction c) suturing d) assist with wound dressing 5) Which of the following is ambulatory surgery? a) colonoscopy b) toenail removal c) skin/mole biopsy d) fine-needle aspiration (FNA) 6) Which of the following is an outpatient surgery? a) c-section b) dilation and curettage (D&C) c) hysterectomy d) bypass surgery 7) This type of surgery is medically necessary but can be performed at the patient's request. a) elective b) emergency c) optional d) outpatient e) urgent 8) This type of surgery is required immediately to save a life. a) elective b) emergency c) optional d) outpatient e) urgent 9) This type of surgery is per the patient's wishes and not medically necessary. a) elective b) emergency c) optional d) outpatient e) urgent 10) This type of surgery does not require a hospital stay. a) elective b) emergency c) optional d) outpatient e) urgent 11) This type of surgery must be performed as soon as possible but is not life-threatening. a) elective b) emergency c) optional d) outpatient e) urgent 12) Which surgery is done to relieve purulent material from an infection? a) LASER b) cryocautery c) colonoscopy d) incision and drainage 13) Medical asepsis includes the following except: a) clean technique b) limit the number of microorganisms c) surgical scrub performed d) clean field 14) Surgical asepsis includes the following except: a) sterile technique used b) absence of microorganisms c) sterile equipment used d) clean field 15) Which of the following statements is false? a) do not place sterile fields in a draft b) do not touch the outside of sterile gloves with bare hands c) do not reach over a sterile field d) the sterile field is above the elbow level 16) Which of the following sutures is the smallest in diameter (thickness)? a) 11-0 b) 10-0 c) 8-0 d) 5-0 e) 0 17) Which suture size is most appropriate for the eyelid? a) 3-0 b) 5-0 c) 10-0 d) 2-0 18) Scraping a) Abrasion b) Incision c) Laceration d) Punture e) Avulsion 19) Smooth cut from sharp material a) Abrasion b) Incision c) Laceration d) Punture e) Avulsion 20) edges are irregular and torn a) Abrasion b) Incision c) Laceration d) Punture e) Avulsion 21) minimal pointed cut a) Abrasion b) Incision c) Laceration d) Punture e) Avulsion 22) skin and tissue is partially or completely torn away a) Abrasion b) Incision c) Laceration d) Punture e) Avulsion 23) Positive feedback to promote blood clot formation a) inflammatory phase b) proliferation phase c) maturation phase 24) Cells multiply to repair the wound a) inflammatory phase b) proliferation phase c) maturation phase 25) Scar forms a) inflammatory phase b) proliferation phase c) maturation phase

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1) Which of the following is an administrative pre-op function for an MA? 2) Which of the following is true of implied consent?

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acid/o - acid, acr/o - extremity, point, andr/o - man, crin/o - to secrete, ger/o - old age, gonad/o - seed, hirsut/o - hairy, kal/i - potassium, myx/o - mucus, pancreat/o - pancreas, adren/o - adrenal gland, cortic/o - cortex, gluc/o - sweet, sugar, insulin/o - insulin, toxic/o - poison, vas/o - vessel, cortex - cortis, small - dwarf, sensation - esthes, to bear - gester, little acorn - glandul, drowsiness - letharg, pine cone - pine, thymus - thym/o, body - somat/o, masculine - viril/o, testicle - test/o, female - estr/o, kidney - nephr/o, gland - aden/o,

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acid/o - acid, acr/o - extremity, point, andr/o - man, crin/o - to secrete, ger/o - old age, gonad/o - seed, hirsut/o - hairy, kal/i - potassium.

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Find the match - Tap the matching answer to eliminate it. Repeat until all answers are gone.

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Matching pairs - Tap a pair of tiles at a time to reveal if they are a match.

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A1C - glycosylated hemoglobin, ACTH - adrenocorticotropic hormone, ADH - antidiuretic hormone, DI - diabetes insipidus, DKA - diabetic ketoacidosis, DM - diabetes mellitus, FBG - fasting blood glucose, FBS - fasting blood sugar, FSH - follicle-stimulating hormone, GH - growth hormone, GTT - glucose tolerance test, HCG - human chorionic gonadotropin, IGF - insulin-like growth factor, LH - luteinizing hormone, OXT - oxytocin, PRL - prolactin, PTH - parathyroid hormone, T1D - type 1 diabetes, T2D - type 2 diabetes, TFT - thyroid function test, TSH - thyroid-stimulating hormone,

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A1C - glycosylated hemoglobin, ACTH - adrenocorticotropic hormone, ADH - antidiuretic hormone, DI - diabetes insipidus, DKA - diabetic ketoacidosis.

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Complete the sentence - A cloze activity where you drag and drop words into blank spaces within a text.

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Match up - Drag and drop each keyword next to its definition.

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Anagram - Drag the letters into their correct positions to unscramble the word or phrase.

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Rank order - Drag and drop the items into their correct order.

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Rank order - Drag and drop the items into their correct order.

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Maze chase - Run to the correct answer zone, whilst avoiding the enemies.

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Assembled supplies nedded for the procedure., Wash hands and place appropriate PPE., Check the label on the medication indicated on the provider's order., Introduce yourself and identified the patient., Explain the procedure to the patient and demonstrate with a demo drug., Check medication again (this is the 2nd time to check)., Explain to the patient that medication helps to manage his/her diagnosis and reiterate the procedure steps and have the patient repeat the steps after you., Third time to check the medication and that it matches the provider's order (this is the 3rd time to check)., The patient should take actual medication (not demo drug) and shake the inhaler., The patient should exhale completely before inserting the mouthpiece creating a tight seal., The patient should inhale slowly while simultaneously pressing the top of the inhaler to release medication., The patient should hold their breath for 10 seconds to allow the medication to enter the lungs., The patient may have to rinse their mouth if needed if instructed by the provider., Educate the patient on the storage and care of medication., Document patient education in the patient's chart..

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Instructing Patient in the Use of a Metered Dose Inhaler with/out a Spacer

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Assembled supplies nedded for the procedure., Wash hands and place appropriate PPE., Check the label on the medication indicated on the provider's order..

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Pt c/o wheezing and coughing, states it started after the season changed. - Asthma, Pt c/o chest tightness and dyspnea, so provider prescribes an inhaler. - Asthma, Pt c/o persistent cough and mucous production, pt has Hx of smoking. - COPD, Pt c/o chest tightness and fatigue, after an intense physical and history, the provider orders maintenance medication for the pt since there is no cure. - COPD, Pt c/o of rhinorrhea and muscles aches, the provider orders Tamiflu. - Flu, Pt c/o a fever that spiked earlier today and pharyngitis. The provider orders an antiviral medication. - Flu, Pt c/o sore throat and a mild HA. The provider tell the pt to increase Vitamin C intake. - Common Cold, Pt c/o watery eyes, sneezing and coughing. The provider advises to get OTC pain and cough relievers. - Common Cold, Pt c/o of a fever, sweating and shortness of breath. The provider orders antibiotics. - Legionnaires' Disease, Pt c/o muscle aches and fever that began 7 days after attending an oreintation for work. - Legionnaires' Disease, Pt c/o of chest pain that worsens when breathing in. The provider orders antibiotics for a lower respiratory infection. - Pleurisy, Pt c/o their TB worsening. The provider increases antibiotics treatment. - Pleurisy, Pt c/o coughing, fatigue, and fever. The provider orders antifungals. - Pneumonia, Pt c/o rapid and labored breathing. After labs, the provider orders antibiotics for Strept. - Pneumonia, Pt c/o pain and pressure around the eyes. The provider orders antibiotics. - Sinusitis, Pt c/o of rhinorrhea, sore throat, and postnasal drip. The provider orders mucolytics. - Sinusitis, Pt c/o cough, night sweats, and chills. The provider orders multiple antibiotics. - TB, Pt c/o hemoptysis, weight loss, and weakness. The provider is ordering a chest x-ray for further investigation. - TB,

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Flash cards - Test yourself using cards with prompts on the front and answers on the back.

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Labelled diagram - Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.

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Gameshow quiz - A multiple choice quiz with time pressure, lifelines and a bonus round.

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Matching pairs - Tap a pair of tiles at a time to reveal if they are a match.

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Anagram - Drag the letters into their correct positions to unscramble the word or phrase.

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Match up - Drag and drop each keyword next to its definition.

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Labelled diagram - Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.

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Labelled diagram - Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.

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Deoxygenated blood flows through the superior and inferior vena cava, Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium, Deoxygenated blood goes through the tricuspid valve, Deoxygenated blood goes into the right ventricle, Deoxygenated blood goes through the pulmonary valve in the pulmonary artery, Deoxygenated blood enters the lungs and becomes oxygenated (gas exchange), Oxygenated blood goes through the pulmonary vein, Oxygenated blood enters the left atrium, Oxygenated blood goes through the mitral valve, Oxygenated blood enters the left ventricle, Oxygenated blood goes through the aorta, Oxygenated blood goes through the body tissues and becomes deoxygenated (gas exchange).

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Deoxygenated blood flows through the superior and inferior vena cava, Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium.

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Labelled diagram - Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.

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Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.. iris, pupil, cornea, lens, retina, optic nerve.

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Hangman - Try to complete the word by picking the correct letters.

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1) Which specialist helps with hearing disorders? a) ophthalmologist b) optometrist c) audiologist d) otorhinolaryngologist 2) Which of the following refers to taste? a) optic b) auditory c) gustatory d) olfactory 3) Which of the following refers to smell? a) optic b) auditory c) gustatory d) olfactory 4) Which of the following is the organ for sight? a) eye b) nose c) ear d) tongue 5) Which structure does light touch in the eye first? a) lens b) retina c) sclera d) cornea 6) Which structure accommodates light onto the retina? a) pupil b) lens c) cornea d) iris 7) Which structure controls the amount of light that enters the eye? a) iris b) lens c) pupil d) cornea 8) Which of the following is found in the anterior chamber? a) aqueous humor b) vitreous humor c) retina d) optic nerve 9) Which of the following is found in the posterior chamber? a) aqueous humor b) vitreous humor c) cornea d) conjunctiva 10) Which structure separates the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye? a) conjunctiva b) cornea c) lens d) ciliary body 11) Which structure is responsible for the production of tears? a) eyelids b) canthus c) lacrimal apparatus d) sclera 12) Which structure provides protection for the eye? a) eyelids b) canthus c) conjunctiva d) cornea 13) Which structure contains photoreceptors? a) rods b) cones c) optic nerve d) retina 14) Which of the following is responsible for bright color reception? a) rods b) cones c) retina d) optic nerve 15) Which of the following is responsible for night vision reception? a) rods b) cones c) retina d) optic nerve 16) Which of the following is the path of light to the optic nerve? a) cornea, iris, lens, pupil, retina, optic nerve b) lens, retina, pupil, optic nerve c) cornea, pupil, lens, retina, optic nerve d) iris, pupil, cornea, lens, retina, optic nerve 17) Which of the following structures is part of the external ear? a) oval window b) cochlea c) malleus d) pinna 18) Which of the following structures is part of the middle ear? a) auricle b) incus c) cochlea d) semicircular canals 19) Which of the following structures is part of the inner ear? a) lobe b) stapes c) cochlea d) tympanic membrane 20) Which structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear? a) pinna b) auditory canal c) auditory meatus d) tympanic membrane 21) What are the smallest bones in the body? a) eustachian bones b) ossicles c) orthomyringes d) pinnas 22) Which structure helps to drain excessive fluids in the middle ear? a) eustachian tube b) tympanic meatus c) vestibule d) stapes 23) Which of the following is the organ of hearing? a) cochlea b) vestibule c) semicircular canals d) auditory nerve 24) Which of the following helps with balance? a) cochlea b) vestibule c) semicircular canals d) auditory nerve 25) Which of the following helps with orientation? a) cochlea b) vestibule c) semicircular canals d) auditory nerve

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1) Which specialist helps with hearing disorders? 2) Which of the following refers to taste? 3) Which of the following refers to smell?

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1) what does "blephar/o" mean? a) cornea b) retina c) light d) eyelid 2) what is the word part for "lens"? a) orth/o b) goni/o c) cycl/o d) phak/o 3) what is the word part for "retina"? a) retin/o b) kerat/o c) scler/o d) trop/o 4) what does "log" mean? a) fat b) study c) life d) lens 5) what is the word part for "pus"? a) cyst/o b) py/o c) myc/o d) cry/o 6) what does "ophthalm/o" mean? a) eye b) nose c) ear d) lens 7) what is the word part for "dry"? a) scler/o b) xen/o c) xer/o d) kerat/o 8) what is the word part for "land snail"? a) cochle/o b) choroid/o c) cycl/o d) presby/o 9) what part for "hardening"? a) trich/o b) scler/o c) cycl/o d) xer/o 10) what does "strabism" mean? a) kissing b) hearing c) squinting d) smiling 11) what does "trop/o" mean? a) measure b) food c) mature d) turn 12) what is the word part for "lacrimal duct"? a) dacryocyst/o b) blephar/o c) cycl/o d) dacry/o 13) what is the word part for "double"? a) dipl/o b) ambly/o c) cycl/o d) kerat/o 14) what does "mydriat" mean? a) hardening b) to nod c) dilate, widen d) less, small 15) what is the word part for "to hear"? a) acous/o b) retin/o c) ambly/o d) audi/o 16) what is the word part for "pupil"? a) cor/o b) kerat/o c) phot/o d) cycl/o 17) what is the word part for "unequal"? a) goni/o b) ambly/o c) dipl/o d) anis/o 18) what does "med" mean? a) cold b) straight c) middle d) muscle 19) what is the word part for "cold"? a) py/o b) cono/o c) scler/o d) cry/o 20) what is the word part for "mastoid process"? a) neur/o b) myc/o c) metr/o d) mast/o 21) what does "myring/o, tympan/o" mean? a) membranes, meninges b) cochlea, ear, brain c) bone marrow, spinal cord d) eardrum 22) what does "enucleat" mean? a) voice box b) to remove the kernel of c) foreign material d) disintegrate 23) what does "ambly/o" mean? a) pus b) dirty c) eye d) dull 24) what does "foc/o" mean? a) lens b) eye c) light d) focus 25) what is the word part for "to clot" a) coagulat b) mydriat c) fenestrat d) enucleat 26) what is the word part for "window"? a) coagulat b) electr/o c) mydrait d) fenestrat 27) what does "labyrinth/o" mean? a) droop, sag b) middle c) maze d) voice box 28) what is the word part for "less, small"? a) mi/o b) ambly/o c) ton/o d) phak/o 29) what does "acoust, auditor" mean? a) retina b) eyelid c) hearing d) cornea 30) what does "xen/o" mean? a) cell fragments b) foreign material c) damage grain d) normal cells of the body 31) what is the word part for "point"? a) steat/o b) stigmat/o c) presby/o d) retin/o 32) what is the word part for "disintegrate"? a) emulsificat b) fenestrat c) coagulat d) med 33) what is the word part for "light"? a) kerta/o b) ton/o c) py/o d) phot/o

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1) what does "blephar/o" mean? 2) what is the word part for "lens"? 3) what is the word part for "retina"? 4) what does "log" mean?

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Med Terminology Practice Quiz - Spelling!

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Anagram - Drag the letters into their correct positions to unscramble the word or phrase.

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Complete the sentence - A cloze activity where you drag and drop words into blank spaces within a text.

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Labelled diagram - Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.

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Labelled diagram - Drag and drop the pins to their correct place on the image.

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Quiz - A series of multiple choice questions. Tap the correct answer to proceed.

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Brain - coordinates most body activities, Spinal Cord - provides pathway for nerve impulses, Peripheral nerves - carries nerve signals between the body and the brain, Neuron - functional unit of the nervous system, Dendrites - has multiple branching structures, Nucleus - directs cellular activities, Cytoplasm - produces neurotransmitters and energy for the neuron, Axon - stores neurotransmitters,

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Brain - coordinates most body activities, Spinal Cord - provides pathway for nerve impulses, Peripheral nerves - carries nerve signals between the body and the brain, Neuron - functional unit of the nervous system, Dendrites - has multiple branching structures, Nucleus - directs cellular activities, Cytoplasm - produces neurotransmitters and energy for the neuron, Axon - stores neurotransmitters,