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According to Act 1 and Kohlberg's theory, Macbeth seems to fit into the conventional or pre conventional stage. Macbeth goes against his morals and understands the consequences of his actions, however still follows Lady Macbeth's orders. However, I feel like Macbeth could fit into the pre conventional stage of the theory. This is shown through Macbeth's reluctancy towards killing Duncan, and also his consciousness of what is right and what is wrong. Macbeth kills Duncan, and even though he is guilty about it, he was the one who decided to do it.

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Based upon Act 1 of Macbeth and the moral stages in Kohlberg's theory, I presume that Macbeth would be classified under the Conventional Level Stage of his theory. This is because the conventional level stage is shown to be the stage at which a person focuses on his/her's families interests, and is careless of the actions he/she takes to fulfill their interests. From Macbeth, you can see how he is making all his decisions, without thinking them through (being careless), based upon what his wife wants.

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I think that Macbeth fits into the conventional level because after he kills Duncan he feels bad and knows that Duncan is a good man, but because of the persuasion of his wife he ends up killing Duncan and goes against his morals.

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i think that Macbeth

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I think Macbeth falls into the conventional level of Kohlberg's theory because that theory states that maintaining the expectations of an individual's family in its own right, regardless of the consequences. Even though Macbeth didn't want to kill Duncan, Lady Macbeth pressured him because she know that was the only way for him to become King, regardless of the moral and physical consequences.

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I believe that Macbeth falls under the conventional theory because he feels bad after killing King Duncan, but because he does it for his family(wife) he stayed true to his relationship with Lady Macbeth.

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Macbeth falls under the Conventional Level of moral development. This is because he is ignoring his own moral conflict in order to do what Lady Macbeth asks of him. He very simply is considered to be a part of this level because of hiss decision to conform to her wants

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I believe that Macbeth fits into the second stage or, instrumental-relativist orientation. Macbeth does not show having strong morals as he kills king Duncan to become king. According to Kohlberg's theory stage 2 is described as when someones actions is based on satisfying one's own needs.

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According to Kohlberg's theory Macbeth fits best under Level 2 (Conventional) because he follow other people and what they want to do like his power hungry wife to kill the king although he knows it is wrong and it is against his morals.

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According to Kohlberg's Theory on the Stages of Moral Development, I have concluded that Macbeth would fall into the Conventional Level because he he was maintaining the expectations of his family (Lady Macbeth) to kill Duncan. He knew the consequences and that he was wrong but he still followed his wife's expectations.

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At the end of Act 1, Macbeth would best fit in stage 2 of the 6 stages of development. If fits best in this stage because Macbeth decides to kill an innocent man, just to further his own wants and is not loyal. He does however have some consideration for Duncan's feelings and goals which makes it step 2 instead of 1.

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According to Kolberg's theory I think Macbeth would fit under the conventional stage because he bases his actions around what hes family wants. This is evident when he listens to his wife and kills King Duncan to gain power.

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I believe that Macbeth would be conventional because although he knows killing is wrong he does it anyway for himself and family.

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I think Macbeth should fall into the conventional level of Kohlberg's theory because he didn't want to kill king Duncan, but knew that it was the only way for him to become king. He was pressured into his decision by his wife, Lady Macbeth, who called him a coward for hold his belief that he shouldn't kill Duncan. He followed through with his wife's wishes though, succumbing to her pressure and committing the action with the belief that there was no other way, and he had to do it for his family.

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I think that Macbeth falls into the conventional level stage 4 because he goes against his morals and what he things is right in order to please her. He rationalized this in his head to try to make it seem right, even though deep down he knew it was wrong. King Duncan was a friend but he killed him, even though he didn't think he should, in order to please his wife.

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Macbeth fits under conventional because he remained loyal to lady Macbeth and the plan to kill Duncan over his moral dilemma.

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I think that Macbeth fits under stage two because for someone to fall into stage two they take actions that satisfy their needs and occasionally the needs of others. Macbeth demonstrated this when he killed Duncan. Even though he felt guilty about it, he still wanted to do it, and he did it because Lady Macbeth wanted him to do it. He knew it was wrong, but lady Macbeth convinced him that he needed to do it to get ahead.

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I believe that Macbeth would fall under the Conventional level because he followed the orders of his family. He wanted to follow his wife's order to kill Duncan. He knew in his head that it was wrong but he did it anyways because of the influence of his wife (family).

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According to Kohlberg's theory Macbeth would fit best under

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I believe Macbeth would fit under the Conventional Level because although he personally believes the killing Duncan is wrong he still does it for his family and cause its what his wife want.

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According to Kohlberg's theory, Macbeth seems to fall into the Conventional Level, but he also shows multiple signs of still being in the Preconventional Level. This is due to the fact that when he told by Lady Macbeth to kill King Duncan, he initially refuses to do it. Macbeth knows the future consequences of his actions, but he still follows what Lady Macbeth tells him to do. In his mind, his loyalty to his wife makes the situation more "right," and therefore more okay for him to commit such a crime.

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According to kolberg theory I think macbeth would fit in under post conventional.

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According to Kohlberg's theory, Macbeth would fit best under the conventional level stage 4 because his wife, Lady Macbeth, tells him to kill Duncan, which he thinks is morally wrong, but he does it anyways. He decides to take her advice over his and supports it and justifies it to himself in his head to make it seem right. He does so to stay loyal to her and to do what she asked him to do without failing.

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I feel like theres a part of macbeths action who would make him fall into stage two. In stage two, you have to maintain the expectations of the individuals family group or nation and its seen as valuebale to do so. So when he killed king Dunkin because his wife was calling him weak and cowardful, he was doing this bad action to reach lady macbeths expectation.