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it depends whether the family subjected it to their person or the couple, as normally inheritance is tied to one person and the spouse is not included in it

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to separate the property

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security purpose

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i think because the creation of nuptial agreements either before or after marriage still has the same goal, which is to separate the property. so there's nothing wrong with the current rules to apply.

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to avoid problems that occur in a marriage, for example, such as property problems

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to avoid problems that occur in a marriage, for example, such as property problems

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i think yes, because its the third party right to approve their involvement to an agreement. if they dont approve to an agreement but they still binding without theyre approval it is like a  coercion to the third party.

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i think yes, because its the third party right to approve their involvement to an agreement. if they dont approve to an agreement but they still binding without theyre approval it is like a  coercion to the third party.

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MITOS-MITOS PERJANJIAN PERKAWINAN - brand.advice TALK Ep. 1

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What are the consequences for third parties if the marriage agreement can be changed after it is made and ratified by the marriage registrar?

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What are the consequences for third parties if the marriage agreement can be changed after it is made and ratified by the marriage registrar?

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Does the content of a nuptial agreement involving a third party require the approval of a third party?

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Does the content of a nuptial agreement involving a third party require the approval of a third party?

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Why now nuptial agreement can be made after the marriage happened?

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Why now nuptial agreement can be made after the marriage happened?